General Studies - 2008 (Main) (Paper - I And Paper - II)
Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS:-
Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30
(a) What was the character of social religious reforms in the 19th Century and how did they contribute to the national awakening in India?
(b) The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to the constitutional reforms, disillusionment and militant anti-colonial struggles. Elucidate.
2. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each) : 15x2 = 30
(a) What are the salient features of the Government of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?
(b) Do you think Mahatma Gandhi's support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his secular credentials? Give your argument based on the assessment of events.
(c) Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the cause of India’s Struggle of independence.
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General Studies - 2003 (Main) (Paper - I)
Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English. Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question. Candidate should attempt All questions strictly in accordance with instructions given under each question.
Q1. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30 Marks
a) “The reforms of 1909 introduced a cardinal problem and ground of controversy at every revision of the Indian electoral system.” Comment.
b) Discuss the problem that impeded the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union. How were these problems tackled?
Q2. Answer any two of the following: (about 150 words) 2 X15=30 Marks
a) ‘The mainstay of Mahatma Gandhi’s movements was the rural India.’ Elucidate.
b) Discuss the character of major tribal uprisings in British India in the nineteenth Century.
c) Bring out the ideological basis of the Moderate-Extermist divide in the Indian National Congress.
Q3. Answer the following: (about 20 words ) 15X2=30 Marks
i) Arthasastra
ii) Saranath Pillar
iii) The Jatiya Sarkar of Tamluk
iv) Punnapra-Vayalar
v) Sajjad Zahir
vi) Al-Hilal
vii) Har Dayal
viii) Khudai Khidmatgar
ix) Mahayana Cult
x) W.W. Hunter
xi) Indu Lal Yajnik
xii) Achhut Patwardhan
xiii) Sir William Jones
xiv) James Wilson
xv) Ghulam-giri.
Q4. Answer any two of the following: (about 125 words) 2X10=20
a) Describe the major characteristics of the rivers of Peninsular India.
b) Account for the very high concentration of salt extraction industries in the Saurashtra and South Tamilnadu Coast.
c) State the four distinctive stages of Indian Demographic history.
Q5.write short notes on the following (about 20 words) 5X2=10 i) Define Terai Region.
ii) Mention the areas of Shola forests in India.
iii) Who are the Todas and where do they live?
iv) Name any four priccipal languages of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
v) What is MRTS? Where it is in operation?
Q6. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30
a) Discuss the question of death sentence and Presidential clemency.
b) Explain the discretionary powers of the Governor of a State.
Q7. Answer any two of the following: (about 150 words) 2 X15=30
a) Highlight the signifucance of Forty Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India
b) Identify the major Fundamental Duties
c) Explain the relevance of Rajya Sabha as a second chamber in the federal set up of Indian Parliamentary System.
Q9. Answer the following: (about 20 words) 2 X5=10
a) What is a point of order? When can it be raised?
b) What is a Privilege Motion?
c) State the difference between Council of Ministers and the Cabinet.
d) How is the Vice President of India elected?
e) What is meant by ‘sine-die’ adjournment?
Q10. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30
a) Discuss the steps taken by Government to check child labour and promote child welfare.
b) Suggest measures for the eradication of wide spread corruption in Public Life in India.
Q11. Answer any two of the following: (about 125 words) 2 X10=20
a) The issue of gender equality in India.
b) b) Natural Heritage and Cultural Heritage.
c) c) Identify the types of disabilities.
Q12. Answer any two of the following: (about 125 words) 2 X10=20
a) What are the distinctive features of the Lokpal Bill introduced in the Parliament this year?
b) What is the Prime Minister’s Five-Point agenda fir India’s development as a Knowledge Society?
c) What are the precinditions for the growth of Civil Society? Is Indian democracy conducive to it?
Q13. Write about the following ( about 20 words ) 5X2=10
a) Anthrax
b) Radiation and its effects
c) The Statue of Liberty
d) George Walker Bush
e) Genome.
GENERAL STUDIES Paper 1- 2002
1. Answer any one of the following (250 words) : 30
(a) What was the Butler Committee Report? Discuss the reactions on the report in India
(b) Why did Jinnah reject C.R. Formula?
2. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) : 2x15=30
(a) Trace the growth of the Indian Home Rule Movement in Britain.
(b) Evaluate the attitudes of different political parties towards Quit India Movement.
(c) Review the ‘Dickie Bird Plan’
3. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each) : 15x2=30
(i) Anandmath
(ii) Bismillah Khan
(iii) Chris Evert
(iv) Chamber of Princes
(v) Dharma Sabha
(vi) Divide et impera
(vii) Dandi March
(viii) Garry Kasparov
(ix) Keshab Chandra Sen
(x) Nivedita
(xi) Pele
(xii) Raidasa
(xiii) Satyagraha
(xiv) Steffi Graf
(xv) Theodore Beck
4. Answer any two of the following (about 125 words) : 2x10=20
(a) Given an account of the tea plantations of Assam and West Bengal and state the economic significance of these plantations
(b) Discuss the distribution of winds and rainfall over India in the summer monsoon season.
(c) Define the concept of ‘growth centres’ and evaluate its relevance in regional planning in India
5. Write short notes on the following (about 20 words) : 5x2=10
(i) Name of main petroleum producing areas in India
(ii) Jhum cultivation - process and consequences
(iii) Kaziranga National Park
(iv) Census definition of urban places
(v) Khetri Copper Project
6. Answer any one of the following (about 250 words) : 30
(a) “The issue of a hung Parliament adversely affects the stability of Indian Government”. Discuss the statement and point out how far changing over to the Presidential form of govt. will be a solution to this problem.
(b) Why does the Constitution of India provide different forms of Oaths for the President, the Ministers, the legislators and the members of the judiciary? Discuss their significance.
7. Answer any one of the following (about 250 words) : 30
(a) What is the position of the Supreme Court under the Constitution of India? How far does it play its role as guardian of the Constitution?
(b) How is the Constitution of India amended? Do you think that the procedure for amendment makes the Constitution a play-thing in the hands of the Centre?
8. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) : 2x15=30
(a) Discuss the constitutional provisions relating to the non-justiciable directives binding upon the states.
(b) Describe the methods of delimiting constituencies for parliamentary elections in India.
(c) Explain the role of the Public Accounts Committee.
9. Answer the following (about 20 words) : 5x2=10
(i) What is the import of the 84th Amendment of the Indian Constitution?
(ii) Under what Article of the Constitution can the Union govt. play its role in settling inter-state water disputes?
(iii) What is the role of the protem speaker?
(iv) What is meant by the ‘lame-duck session’ of the legislature?
(v) What is meant by the ‘fringe areas ‘ in the sphere of local govt. in India?
10. Write on any one of the following (250 words) 30
(a) What is the composition of the Electoral college for the election of the President of the Indian Republic? How is the value of the votes cast counted?
(b) “Biotechnology boom may pave a golden path for India”. Discuss.
11. Answer any two of the following (about 125 words) : 2x10=20
(a) What were the main strategic concerns of the Indonesian President Megawati Sukarnoputri during her recent visit to India?
(b) What is “TRIFED”? What are its objectives?
(c) How was the dwindling of barbed variety of rice affected Siliguri-Bagdogra belt with respect to man-animal conflict?
12. Answer any two of the following (about 125 words) : 2x10=20
(a) What is Integrated Wastelands Development Programme?
(b) Write briefly about the Desert Development Programme.
(c) Write briefly about the Programmes for ‘Welfare of the Disabled’.
13. Write about the following (20 words): 5x2=10
(i) Prof. B.P. Sinha
(ii) Maj. Gen. S.S. Sharma
(iii) Kondapalli Seetaramaiah
(iv) Aung San Suu Kyi
(v) Thalassery, Kerala
GENERAL STUDIES Paper 2- 2002
1. Answer any two of the following (150 words) : 15x2=30
(a) Discuss the major irritants in Indo-China relations and highlight the latest moves to overcome these
(b) How did U.S. respond to the problem of Cross-border terrorism in the State of Jammu and Kashmir after the Kaluchak events?
(c) Account for India’s opposition to CTBT.
2. Answer the following (about 20 words) : 2x5=10
(a) Explain India’s stand on LTTE.
(b) What does ‘Gujral doctrine’ stand for?
(c) How does India benefit from good neighbourly relations with Bangladesh?
(d) What do you know about ‘Pinaka’?
(e) Explain India’s ‘No first Use’ policy in context of Nuclear weapons.
3. Answer the following (about 20 words each) : 2x5=10
(a) What are the problems NRIs have to face if they decide to settle in India?
(b) What was India Millenium Deposit Scheme?
(c) What has been the impact of Gulf remittances on India’s economy?
(d) Name the nodal agency to deal with issues relating to Indians abroad and explain its main task.
(e) What is the distinction between NRI and ‘People of India origin’.
4. Answer any one of the following (about 250 words) : 30
(a) Outline the main targets fixed in the National Population policy 2000. What have been the follow up measures to this policy?
(b) The main thrust of the EXIM Policy 2002-07 is on creating a framework for enhancing India’s export capability. In the light of this statement outline the salient features of EXIM Policy 2002-07.
5. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) : 15x2=30
(a) What are ‘Minimum Support Prices’ in agricultural products? What are their objectives?
(b) Outline the main objectives and achievements of the ploicy of disinvestment in India?
(c) With what objectives was ‘Essential Commodities Act 1955’ amended last year?
6. Answer the following ( about 20 words) 2x15=30
(a) What is the peak rate of Custom duty? What are its objectives in India?
(b) Define fiscal deficit.
(c) Explain the provision of OGL.
(d) Elucidate ‘Special Economic Zones’
(e) Highlight the salien feature of ‘National Highway Development Project’
(f) What is the role of SEBI
(g) Explain RBI’s Automatic Route in FDIs.
(h) With what objectives was the ‘Annapurna’ scheme launched?
(i) Elucidate ‘Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana’
(j) The union budget 2002-03 recommended some servi ces to be taxed. Name any 4 of these services.
(k) What is dumping? What is its objective?
(l) What do you understand by ‘Capital account Convertibility’ of Rupee?
(m) Define Sex ration in the population of India. What is its present status?
(n) Distinguish between ad-valorem and specific duties.
(o) Define zero-based budget.
7. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) : 15x2=30
(a) Highlight the main points of Nuclear Disarmament treaty signed by US President George Bush and Russian Prez Vladimir Putin in May 2002.
(b) Outline the features of latest Saudi Peace Plan for West Asia Crisis and assess its importance.
(c) “NAM is relevant in Unipolar Worls as well”. Comment.
8. Answer the following (about 20 words) : 2x5=10
(a) What do the following stand for ?
(i) WCAR
(ii) SPDC
(iii) INTERPOL
(iv) WIPO
(b) Why was Bander Seri Begawan in news recently?
(c) Who is Xanana Gusmao?
(d) What do you mean by Uni-polar world?
(e) What do you know about the North-South dialogue?
9. Answer the following (about 20 words) : 2x5=10
(a) What do the following stand for?
(i) UNCHR
(ii) UNIDO
(iii) WTO
(iv) MIGA
(b) What is meant by AU?
(c) Explain U.S. stand on the proposal for establishing an International Crime Court
(d) What is the main purpose of G-15?
(e) Why is SAFTA being mooted?
10. Answer any one of the following (about 250 words) : 30
(a) Plastic hazards – Discuss.
(b) Discuss in detail “The internet telephony as an alternative”.
11. Answer any two of the following (150 words) 15x2=30
(a) What are the fundamental constants and their use in measurement system?
(b) Discuss about ‘Environment’, its components and its awareness.
(c) What is Human Cloning? Is it dangerous or beneficial? Discuss.
12. Answer the following (about 20 words) : 2x5=10
(a) What is digital camera?
(b) What is firewall in computer language?
(c) What is multimedia?
(d) What do the following stand for?
(i) HTML
(ii) FTP
(iii) MFLOPS
(iv) PLANIT
(e) What is Piracy?
13. Answer the following: 2x8=16
(a) The figures below give the revenue expenditure in U.P> on education in crore of rupees for the last 3 years :
Particulars Expenditure (crore Rs.)
1998-99 99-00 00-01
Primary Education 68.00 78.00 118.00
Secondary Education 40 45 74
Special Education 30 35 45
University and Higher Education 50 52 56
Technical Education 35 38 42
Sports and Youth Welfare 20 22 30
Represent the above information by suitable diagram.
(b) Represent the following data by frequency polygon :
Weekly Wages (Rs.) No. of workers
0-10 10
10-20 15
20-40 18
40-70 60
70-100 45
100-120 40
120-150 30
14. Answer the following
(a) The life of 2 models A & B of refrigrators in a recent survey is tabulated as follows :
Life (no. of years) Model A Model B
0-2 5 2
2-4 16 7
4-6 13 12
6-8 7 19
8-10 5 9
10-12 4 1
(i) What is the average life of each model of these refrigrators?
(ii) Which model shows more uniformity? 2+6=8
(b) The following table shows the distribution of 100 families according to their expenditure per week. Number of families corresponding to the expenditure groups Rs. (10-20) and Rs. (30-40) are missing from the table. The median and mode for the distribution are Rs. 25 and Rs. 24 respectively. Calculate the missing frequencies :
Expenditure (Rs.) No. of families
0-10 14
10-20 -
20-30 27
30-40 -
40-50 15
8
15. Answer the following :
(a) The average rainfall of a certain place for Monday to Saturday is 15 inches. Due to heavy rainfall on Sunday, the average rainfall of the week rose to 25 inches. How much rainfall was there on Sunday?
(b) The following are the info pertaining to employees of a factory :
Total no. of employees 100
Avg. salary of all employees Rs. 5000
Avg. salary of male employees Rs. 5200
Avg. salary of female employees Rs. 4200
What is the no. of male and female employees?
(c) If each calue in a sample size of 15 is multiplied by 10, then whether the mean will be changed, justify your answer. What will happen to the mean if 12 is subtracted from each value?
(d) A person owns 2 companies A & B. He invested Rs. 10 Lakh to establish Co. A and Rs. 10 crore to establish Co. B. The average profits earned from both the companies are the same. Which of the 2 companies is better from profit earning point view? Justify your answer.
General Studies - 2000 (Main) (Paper - I)
Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
Q.1. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) : - 30
(a) Trace the origin of the Swadeshi Movement. How did it involve the masses
(b) What was Mountbatten Plan ? Discuss the reactions of Gandhi and Azad to the Plan.
Q. 2. Answer any TWO of the following (About 150 words each):- 15 x 2 = 30
(a) Who established the Arya Samaj ? What was its goal ?
(b) How did the terrorist movement gather strength in countries other than India?
(c) Was Jawaharlal Nehru justified in adopting the principle of non-alignment as the corner-stone of India's foreign policy ?
Q. 3. Answer the following (About 20 words each) : - 2 x 15 = 30
(i) Brahmagupta
(ii) Amir Khusro
(iii) William Jones
(iv) C.F. Andrews
(v) Narayan Guru
(vi) Tantia Tope
(vii) Sayyid Ahmad
(viii) Margaret Noble
(ix) Sangam Literature
(x) Gandhara School of art
(xi) Granth Sahib
(xii) Fort William College
(xiii) Epsom
(xiv) Lala Amarnath
(xv) Tiger Woods.
Q. 4. Answer any TWO of the following (About 125 words each):- 2 x 10 = 20
(a) Mention the agro-climatic regions of India stating the basis of classification.
(b) Explain the major racial groups of India.
(c) What is waste land ? Write a note on prospects of waste land development in India.
Q. 5. Write notes on the following (About 20 words each) :- 5 x 2 = 10
(i) Linguistic regions of India
(ii) Nagarjunasagar Project
(iii) Mango Showers
(iv) Multi-level planning in India
(v) India's Laterite soils.
Q. 6. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words):- 30
(a) Examine the need for the review of the Indian Constitution.
(b) Examine the demand for greater State-antonomy and also its impact on the smooth functioning of the Indian polity.
Q. 7. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) :- 30
(a) How does Parliament control the Union Executive ? How effective is its control ?
(b) What constitutes the doctrine of 'basic features' as introduced into the Constitution of India by the Judiciary ?
Q. 8. Answer any TWO of the following (About 150 words each) :- 15 x 2 = 30
(a) Identify, the major electoral reforms which are necessary in the Indian Political System.
(b) Examine the role of Estimates Committee.
(c) Discuss the major extra-constitutional factors influencing the working of federal polity in India.
Q. 9. Answer the following (About 20 words each) :- 5 x 2 = 10
(a) What is vote on account ?
(b) What is a Caretaker Government ?
(c) Do you justify the Prime Minister's entry into Parliament through the Rajya Sabha ?
(d) What is a Privilege Motion ?
(e) What is Contempt of Parliament ?
Q.10. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) :- 30
(a) Discuss the provisions of the Human Rights Protection ACt (1993) relating to the following :-
(i) Definition of human rights.
(ii) Composition of the National Human Rights Commission.
(iii) Functions of the Commission.
(iv) What suggestions have been made for amending the Act for making the role of the NHRC more effective ?
(b) Discuss the propositions laid down by the Supreme Court of India in the context of Torture in Prisons and Human Dignity.
Q. 11. Write on any TWO of the following (About 125 words each) :- 2 x 10 = 20
(a) Explain Public Interest Litigation. Who can file it and on what basis can it be rejected by the Court of Law ?
(b) Discuss Human Genome.
(c) What are the features of the Uttar Pradesh Regulation of Public Religious Buildings and Places Bill, 2000, that have caused widespread protests from minorities ?
Q. 12. Write notes on any TWO of the following (About 125 words each) : 2 x 10 = 20
(a) Universal Postal Union
(b) Economic and Social Council
(c) Florence Nightingale.
Q.13. Write about the following (About 20 words each) :- 2 x 5 = 10
(a) CRY
(b) Baba Amte
(c) Ali Sardar Jafri
(d) 'Water'
(e) Aruna Roy.
General Studies - 2000 (Main) (Paper - 2)
Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
Q. 1 . Answer any two of the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words) : - 15 x 2 = 30
(a) Discuss Indian-Sri Lankan relations in recent years.
(b) India's Kargil victory rested on its successful effort at combining diplomacy with the use of force. Discuss.
(c) Differentiate and state the significance of Pokharan I and Pokharan II.
Q. 2. Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10
(a) What does track two diplomacy stand for ?
(b) Non-alignment is a need, not a creed, Elaborate.
(c) Differentiate between Peace-making and Peace-keeping.
(d) What is deterrence ?
(e) Why has the indigenous development of Cryogenic Enging become necessary for India ?
Q. 3. Answer the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10
(a) What does the Global organisation of people of Indian origin stand for ?
(b) What is the impact of economic sanctions against India on NRIs ?
(c) Why is Fiji crisis of May 19, 2000 a specific concern for India ?
(d) Examine the role of NRIs in the liberalisation process of India.
(e) Mention few NRIs who have brought name and fame for India.
Q. 4. Answer anyone of the following. (Answer should be in about 250 words) 30
(a) India is rapidly emerging as an Information Technology (IT) Superpower. Discuss some aspects of the growth of this Sector in the Indian economy. What role can public policy play in further enhancing growth prospects in this Sector ?
(b) Control over growth of population in India is an essential condition for the country's rapid economic development. Discuss.
Q. 5. Answer any two of the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words) : 2 x 15 = 30
(a) Discuss the reasons for the failure of the Seattle Millennium talks on the WTO (World Trade Organisation). Discuss some implications of this failure for the Indian economy.
(b) What is (Revised) Targeted Public Distribution System ? What are its main features ?
(c) Discuss the economic effects of Black money (Parallel economy) in Indian economy.
Q. 6. Answer the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 15 = 30
(a) What are the main objectives of the 9th Five-Year Plan of the Government of India ?
(b) Write a note on MODVAT Scheme of 1986.
(c) Explain per capita income as a measurement of economic growth.
(d) What are the objectives of Social Security ?
(e) What do you mean by 'Parallel Economy' ?
(f) Describe the use of 'Command Area Development' in India.
(g) What is ICOR (Incremental Capital Output Ratio) ?
(h) What are the main objectives of NABARD ?
(i) What do you know about 11th Finance Commission ?
(j) What do you mean by revenue deficit in the Central Government's Budget ?
(k) How has the Census (1991) defined the Urban Areas ?
(1) What are the objectives of New Economic Policy of the Government of India ?
(m) Write a note on Rao-Manmohan model of development.
(n) What is the rational for 'Mid-day Meal' Scheme ?
(o) What has been the impact of the recent economic reforms programme on the incidence of poverty in India ?
Q.7. Answer any two of the following. (Answer to each questions should be in about 150 words) : - 15 x 2 = 30
(a) Define Globalisation and differentiate it with Internationalism.
(b) There is a wide-spread concern about the degradation of environment and the problems that go with it. Assess the international response.
(c) How can India accommodate her foreign policy principle of 'non-intervention' with the emerging right to 'intervention'
Q. 8. Answer the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10
(a) What are the prospects of CTBT ?
(b) Differentiate between Collective security and Cooperative security.
(c) What do the following stand for ?
(i) MARV
(ii) MIRV
(iii) ICBM
(d) Differentiate between Explosion and Implosion.
(e) What do you know about Siachin Dispute ?
Q. 9. Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10
(a) What do the following stand for ?
(i) SAARC
(ii) ASEAN
(iii) OIC
(b) What is meant by SDI ?
(c) Differentiate between SALT and START.
(d) What do you know about G-77 ?
(e) What is Global Environmental Facility (GEF) ?
Q.10. Answer any one of the following. (Answer should be in about 250 words) 30
(a) What is the significance of the geostationary orbit ?What would happen if it becomes too crowded ?
(b) Why is the HIV considered so dangerous ? Why has the spread of the virus proved so difficult to contain, especially in the poorer countries of the world ?
Q. 11. Answer any two of the following : (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words) : 15 x 2 = 30
(a) How are transgenic plants different from hybrid plants and what is their relevance in modern agriculture ? Elaborate.
(b) What are greenhouse gases ? What impact do they have on the Earth's climate and with what consequences ? Elaborate.
(c) What is water harvesting ? Describe its relevance in the Indian context.
Q. 12. Answer the following : (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10
(a) What does the 'clock speed' of a computer signify ?
(b) What do the following stand for ?
(i) http
(ii) CPU
(iii) ROM
(vi) BIOS
(c) What is a modem and what is it used for ?
(d) What is spamming ?
(e) How does a computer virus destroy data ?
Q. 13. Answer the following :
(a) The table below shows the number of students in different faculties of a University :
Year Number of Students Total
Humanities Science Commerce
1975-76 2810 890 540 4240
1976-77 3542 1363 471 5376
1977-78 4301 1662 652 6615
1978-79 5362 2071 895 8328
1979-80 6593 2752 1173 10518
Represent the data by a suitable diagram. 8
(b) The pie chart below gives the annual production of certain commodities of a State.
If the production of sugar is 3000 tons, find the total production of rice and wheat. 8
Q. 14. Answer the following :
(a) The number of overtime hours worked by 1000 employees of a company during the last six months is as follows : 4 x 2 = 8
Overtime (in hours) Number of Employees
0-20 401
20-40 226
40-60 182
60-80 74
80-100 43
100-120 38
120-140 20
140-160 9
160-180 5
180-200 2
(i) What is the percentage of employees having worked less than 40 overtime hours during these months ?
(ii) What is the percentage of employees having worked for at least 40 overtime hours but less than 100 overtime hours ?
(b) A certain company offered its shares, of par-value Rs 120, at a premium of Rs 20. In the following year a dividend of 21% was declared by the company. Find the rate of interest at the hands of the investor. 8
Q. 15. Answer the following : 2 x 4 = 8
(a) A farmer has a square plot for cultivation. If the length of each side is increased by 10%, then the yield from the plot will increase by 20%. Is it true ? Give reason.
(b) A company increased its production 8 times in a period of 3 years. What is the percentage increase per year ?
(c) The price of a commodity fell by 25% and then rose by 33.33%. Can we conclude that the current price is 8.33% more of the original price ? Give reason.
(d) A group of 150 workers have Rs 72.60. When both the groups are combined, what be the average daily wage ?
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